Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 02:32
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
What is the more common way to say "you're welcome" in French: “De rien” or “Pas de problème”?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What is the dirtiest thing you have allowed your husband to do?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.